tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3769872213915415947.post3055916020820936234..comments2023-11-08T01:20:47.848-08:00Comments on somewhere else: Is Matthew 17:19 literally true?Hans Georg Lundahlhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/01055583255516264955noreply@blogger.comBlogger2125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3769872213915415947.post-50493422922889591492015-01-30T12:39:01.545-08:002015-01-30T12:39:01.545-08:00And I responded after checking Haydock:
Sorry, I ...And I responded after checking Haydock:<br /><br />Sorry, I seem to have been thinking about some other passage, where that is true. The Haydock comment indeed does not mention the limitation I thought of applied, but only perfect faith: [insert Haydock quote] I recall St John Chrysostom or someone saying this perfect faith is not for everyone, but a special gift, and that first of all we need faith in the dogmas, then God will maybe also give the faith to remove mountains.<br /><br />What blog post did I write that on?<br /><br />[I checked and added:]<br /><br />Ah, here: [linking here] My point about this not being for everyone is the one sticking closer to the text, it is only for everyone who has enough faith.<br /><br />The other point is less directly concerned with it, since Apostles/Bishops are those most needing the perfect faith.<br /><br />But obviously, the promise as such is not restricted to them strictly. It is only that usually this perfect faith goes with a missionary effort that belongs to them first.<br /><br />Sorry for not being clearer!<br /><br />Even so I said "just any layman" - to clarify I did not mean especially devout and confident ones.Hans Georg Lundahlhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/01055583255516264955noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-3769872213915415947.post-38347779289852329352015-01-30T12:36:28.805-08:002015-01-30T12:36:28.805-08:00Got feedback:
On your blog, you wrote the followi...Got feedback:<br /><br /><i>On your blog, you wrote the following: "Is Matthew 17:19 literally true? Short answer, yes, but Christ's promise in that verse is not for everyone...This is no warrant for just any layman - the Apostles to whom Christ spoke were the first bishops of the Church - asking anything and waiting for it to happen and it will." That could answer questions I've always had about verses like this, but doesn't the presence of ὃς in Mark 11:23 go against this interpretation? Doesn't Jesus say "truly I tell you, WHOEVER shall say to this mountain..."? ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν εἴπῃ τῷ ὄρει And doesn't that mean He wasn't just making a promise to the Apostles and their successors? Doesn't the ὃς indicate that Christ's promise is to everyone (and is a warrant for just any layman asking anything and waiting for it to happen)? Also, wouldn't the interpretation that Christ was only speaking to the Apostles and their successors be new and novel? I'm not that up on patristics, and I don't really know Greek that well, but something about this has always bothered me, and I'm trying to understand it. Please help if you can (and thank you.)</i><br /><br />Hans Georg Lundahlhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/01055583255516264955noreply@blogger.com